"Sex without consent is rape." Those words, or an approximation of them, were uttered by just about every feminist commentator over the past week.
In response to George Galloway's creepy defence of Julian Assange's alleged behaviour in Sweden - which was just "bad sexual etiquette", not rape, said Galloway - female writers and politicians have been on a mission to remind us that actually all non-consensual sex is rape.
In the words of Salma Yaqoob of Galloway's Respect party, "rape occurs when a woman has not consented to sex". Or in the widely reported phrasing of a spokesperson for Rape Crisis, "Sex without consent is rape".
This sounds correct. It seems simple yet right to assert that if a woman has not consented to sex, then rape has occurred.
But it is wrong. More than that, the idea that all "non-consensual sex is rape", as Galloway himself has now said in his clarification of his defence of Assange, represents a dangerous rewriting of what rape really means.
Feminists always focus on the state of mind of the woman or women involved in an alleged rape and disregard the state of mind of the man.
This is a terrible error, because in order for rape to have occurred, it is not enough to prove that the woman did not consent; we must also surely prove that the man knows she did not consent, or was utterly reckless as to the question of her consent, and carried on regardless.
That is, rape must involve an intention on the part of the man to commit rape. The man must have a guilty mind - or what is referred to in law as mens rea - in the sense that he knows he is committing rape. In leaving out this key component of rape, feminists are not only undermining the meaning and gravity of this crime - they are also displaying a cavalier disregard for some of the key democratic principles of the modern legal system.
Listening to feminists, one could be forgiven for thinking that there are only two components to rape: first, an act of sex, and second, a lack of consent on the part of the woman involved in that act of sex. So, "sex without consent is rape". But in truth, there are three components to rape: those two things plus criminal intent on the part of the man.
The Sexual Offences Act 2003 lists these three components. It says the crime of rape occurs when there is an intentional sex act, when the alleged victim has not consented, and when the alleged perpetrator "does not reasonably believe" that there is consent.
In other words, the man must know that there is no consent. He must not believe that consent is present, and therefore must know that it is absent. His state of mind - which must be a criminal one in order for a crime to have occurred - is as important as the woman's.
The precedent-setting case DPP vs Morgan, a long-running rape case of the 1970s, makes it even clearer that there must be criminal intent in rape. As Lord Hailsham put it in the Lords' ruling in that case, "Either the prosecution proves that the accused had the requisite intent, or it does not". That is, as with all serious crimes, it is not enough for there to be a guilty act (actus reus) - there must also be a guilty mind (mens rea).
So it is quite wrong to say "sex without consent is rape". It is more accurate to say that "sex pursued in defiance of a lack of consent is rape". That is more of a mouthful, I know, and it sounds quite complicated in comparison to the phrasing preferred by feminists. But crime is a complicated thing; it is rarely the simple, black-and-white morality tale that some feminists would have us believe.
There is something deeply problematic in feminists' undermining of criminal intent in relation to rape. Because what it means is that stupid men, drunken men, thoughtless men and idiotic men who engage in ill-advised or regretted acts of sex are now increasingly lumped together with actual criminal men under the heading "rapists". Having a daft mind is now just as likely to see you branded a rapist by feminists as having a guilty mind.
In essence, we are witnessing the redefinition of rape to mean effectively "bad sexual experiences". The subtle, inexorable downplaying of the idea of criminal intent in rape means that all kinds of horrible or just foolish sexual encounters can be rebranded as rape, even if the intention to commit this heinous crime is lacking.
But criminal intent should remain a key part of the law and a key part of public debate about the law, especially in relation to serious crimes like rape that are punishable by long prison sentences. Why? Because a civilised society should only brand as criminals those who set out to or intend to commit a crime. A civilised society should only punish those who are morally and mentally responsible for their criminal acts. Feminists who are subtly rewriting the meaning of rape are taking us away from this civilised approach and towards something more backward, even feudalistic: the criminal punishment of people who do not have criminal minds.
Carla Buzasi: The Week That Was: Headlines Raped by Men Talking Bullshit
Ellie Cumbo: Getting Rape Wrong, Again
Andrew Smith: George Galloway and the Politics of Rape: A Political Obituary?
What on earth? If a person does not, or is not able to, consent to sex then it is rape. No one should ever underestimate the damage that rape does to its victims, either male or female, and no one has the right to down-grade the severity of that attack based on certain factors, i.e. whether or not the victim was drunk, was married/or in a relationship with the attacker, knew the attacker, led the attacker on, was walking home alone in the early hours of the morning, was scantily dressed, was vulnerable or whatever the circumstances. We need to get past the prehistoric belief that some women (I say women, but the same applies to men) are asking for it in certain situations. Defence Lawyers used these tactics not so long ago in rape trials to humiliate and sully the reputation of the victim of rape which was why so many rape victims were, and still are, reluctant to report it. Meanwhile these vile rapists would have us believe that they are the real victims. If a person sexually violates another no matter what the situation, then yes, that attacker is a rapist and should be classed as such. There is no room for extenuating circumstances.
Likewise harmful is your assumption that the default in all social and intimate situations is "want to have sex" and that a person is constantly giving implicit consent any time they do not clearly, directly communicate that they do not want to have sex.
Your way of thinking is the REASON which women are reluctant to report their rapists- because they know someone like you will turn up to tell them that they must have wanted it, that they should have fought back harder, that no rape occurred. Please, reconsider your belief that women are always available for sex until they clearly say "No." This is an exploitative, predatory way of thinking, and I hope you will see that.
Wow, yeah, I was just thinking to myself I haven't heard men giving their opinion on this enough.
www DOT shakesville DOT com/2011/03/feminism-101-helpful-hints-for-dudes DOT html
Wow, yeah, here's a quip that makes it clear that I totally didn't understand what I just read.
www DOT imacompletetroll DOT com/dont-even-try-to-have-a-rational-conversation-with-me
Women can wait weeks, then decide the non consent, pressured or too intoxicated sexual romp was rape. Some want to broaden this even further so that all sex is considered rape unless the male can prove she willingly consented, and consent can be withdrawn at anytime. Should we have a witness present the entire time, continually asking if consent is still valid? If anything can be learned from this, men should steer clear of women who have had too much to drink, and women should be careful not to drink too much. Otherwise, regret the morning after could take on a whole new meaning.
'The other [school of thought] focuses on research over decades that has found rapists are disturbed individuals with a history of childhood abuse and dysfunctional upbringing and their intent is criminal, not sexual.'
Cite this research please.
Have you read 'I Never Called It Rape' by Robin Warshaw?
It's an error to think all rapists are the 'lurking in a shadowy alleyway waiting to drag a woman off kicking and screaming' variety. Rapists can be boyfriends, normal guys who happen to know nothing about consent and received little to no sex education in school. I really recommend Warshaw's book, and until you're better-informed, I'd really urge you stop contributing on an issue you clearly have very little understanding of.
To knowingly rape someone is to take advantage of a situation for ones own gratification, if the person does not agree to sexual behaviour being thrust upon them, whether penetration occurs or not, that is an offence against that individual
In other words,if there is no obvios acceptance then it is a crime, if there is perceived acceptance by certain behaviour then it would be defendable against rape but the individual then did not agree to further relations then rape could be implied.
It is a minefield, one which both men and women tread heavily upon at times and accusations fly; the judgement should be based upon was the offender knowingly taking advantage without receiving actual consent, then yes it is rape, but as often happens rape is called after the incident because one or both parties were incapable of making the initial judgement, and then the answer is ambiguous
It's pointless to argue with people like you, because you don't even care about the facts. Just some stupid vague legalistic vapid verbosity about something you have no idea about.
Rape is a serious crime with serious penalties. If it's not obvious, then it ISN'T rape. You don't want to send a person to prison for 20 years if it wasn't a violent crime. You don't want to ruin someones life because later on one of the parties decided they didn't really want to have sex, but did it anyway for some other reason. (like they didn't want to disappoint the other one)
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Is the author trying to define rape in the same as murder and manslaughter? And why are not men included in this article? If a man has non consensual sex with another man, is that not rape? If I walk into a shop and take something then that is stealing. However when it comes to the law and politics of the body an offence against the body is treated a little less than stealing or it can be rationalised to the point of unimportance. Women have always been an easy target. Rape is a weapon of war and has been for many years. Does a soldier then have a criminal mind? There must be an awful amount of men out there who are criminals?! There are a lot of chancers out there though who think they can get away with it though and often do or receive very light sentences.
It doesn't, because rape has always meant that. You are confusing rape with the 'crime of rape'. The dictionary definition doesn't change depending on whether it is a crime. There is a standard dictionary definition: sex without consent. Because a sleeping woman cannot consent, it is rape. It doesn't have to be a crime of rape though. What you really mean is: when considering what actions to make a crime, using the definition "all non consensual sex" to define rape in law is dangerous. I agree with that.
This is such a typical response from almost every man I speak to about rape (and I work in this field, so it is a lot of men). Still CANNOT Muster it up to care about the women being raped more than the very very tiny chance they would be falsely accused.
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The rape apologism and denial that I see in the world today makes me sick. A lot of the comments on this page make me sick. Sex without consent IS rape. Legally it IS rape.
"But O'Neill has fatally misunderstood what is meant by the word 'intent' in context - despite the fact it is set out in the very Act of Parliament he quotes, the Sexual Offences Act 2003. Rape is made out where the accused 'does not reasonable believe' the other person consents. In other words, if the accused truly believed that there was consent, but the court held that belief to be unreasonable (for example because it was based on what the complainant was wearing), the accused would still be found guilty. O'Neill's statement that 'the man must know that there is no consent... must not believe that consent is present, and therefore must know that it is absent' is, then, straightforwardly untrue."
http://www.huffingtonpost.co.uk/ellie-cumbo/getting-rape-wrong-again_b_1839292.html?utm_hp_ref=uk